On Fri, Jul 20, 2007 at 10:04:51AM +0900, Hal F. wrote:
Chad P. wrote:
There was an early differentiation in how the spellings tended to be
used. It was not necessarily a conscious delineation, and there was
almost certainly a brief period when they were almost interchangeable,
I don’t think the period was brief; I think it was quite long.
That depends on your comparison. If you’re comparing it to the period
of
time during which you weren’t aware there was a preceding, Greek meaning
to the term, then yeah, it’s long. If you compare it to the time when
the Greek used the word before it was corrupted by Christian cultural
influence, then no, it wasn’t very long at all.
meaning, then later (not causally) a divergence in spelling. The
fact that it’s not causal is what bothers me – it makes the attachment
of a meaning to a spelling especially arbitrary.
The fact it was (probably) not causal is immaterial to the point of the
discussion. It’s also likely that the divergence in spelling occurred
before the divergence in meaning. In any case, attachment of meaning
to sound is, in some respect, always arbitrary. Really – think about
the sounds of “the” for a moment.
But “daemon” certainly does have the same baggage as “demon” to people
who are knowledgeable enough. (The rest say “daymun” anyway.)
Actually . . . the weight of negative baggage is greatest with those who
are not knowledgeable, and thus do not know “demon” and “daemon” are
distinct words. Regardless of pronunciation errors, it is those who
don’t know about the origins of the terms that tend to think “daemon” is
just “demon” with an A, and it is those who do know something about
the
history of the terms that think “Oh, well, they’re not the same thing.”
I can’t even sort out where one gets the idea that the
more-knowledgeable
would be those most prone to thinking “daemon” implies Christian
cultural
baggage, thus imagining that a persistent process on a Unix system is
named after the Devil’s helpers.
The word “daemon” has been used for centuries in and out of Christian
circles, sometimes referring to evil spirits, sometimes not.
. . . but mostly not.
Likewise the word “demon” has been used for centuries in and out of
Christian circles, sometimes referring to evil spirits, sometimes not.
. . . but mostly for evil spirits, increasingly so over time.
I think the (false) distinction between them is a modernism, I would
guess far less than a century old, and an incredibly arbitrary and
unnecessary modernism.
The distinction between them, as I tried to point out earlier in the
passage you said was “almost a tautology”, basically arose with the
assignment of strong negative connotation. In other words, it is
precisely because of the distinction between them that “demon” took on a
stronger negative connotation.
As for the distinction being a “modernism”, there’s no way to argue
against that, since anything that is now, but wasn’t at some point in
the
past, can be called a modernism.
The key point, one might argue, is that the spelling “daemon” has only
really survived as a way to hold on to the older meaning. In other
words, if it weren’t for the linguistic need of the distinction, there’d
only be the word “demon”. Note the original Greek, where even “daimon”
has come to mean the same thing, connotatively, as “demon”: without a
second spelling, there is primarily only the single meaning.
A “demon” or “daemon” strictly speaking is not necessarily evil nor even
part of Christian mythos, just as a “check” in a chess game cannot be
taken to the bank. (We could choose always to spell the latter as
“cheque” – but I would not support that! “Check” and “cheque” are
synonyms just as “demon” and “daemon” are.)
I think you’re failing to differentiate between analogy and proof, here.
Funny, I think we’re using the same argument to disagree.
To say, “Well, this is what people actually think” I call descriptivist.
To say, “This is what the words actually mean” I call prescriptivist.
And as I said, I lean toward the latter.
The problem here is that the meaning associated with “demon” – the
negative “devil’s helpers” sort of meaning – is an acquired,
connotative
meaning. One might even say that, to a transliteration of the original
Greek term, any assignment of the strictly negative meaning can be
regarded as a descriptivist meaning. Thus, my prescriptivist leanings
lead me to keep using the term “daemon” (an academic transliteration of
the Greek) for the original meaning, and “demon” for the negative
Christian meaning that likely arose around the same time as that
spelling.
this false distinction.)
That’s the point, though – using them to mean different things is not
common usage, because commonly people aren’t aware of the existence of
“daemon” as a word, and when they become aware of it they tend to use it
as interchangeable with “demon”. It’s a “small number” that uses it as
interchangeable because it’s caught between those with an academic
understanding of the origins of the words and those who aren’t even
aware
there’s a separate spelling.
entirely, leaving sort of a hole in the language, while increasing the
potential for sloppiness in language by turning “daemon” into nothing
more than a variant spelling.
Fascinating. I say it is and always has been nothing more than a variant
spelling, regardless of how many meanings the word may have (or how some
people may tend to associate a certain meaning with a certain spelling).
If anything, it is “demon” that is, and always has been, a variant
spelling – in which case, you should be fighting for the original
meaning, and not the Christian cultural meaning to be assigned to both.
In any case, no flames intended. A great pleasure to hold this
discussion with you. I don’t think our opinions are reconcilable, but
I think I see your point.
Ditto . . . except that I still hold out hope that there’s some
possibility of arriving at a greater agreement, somehow, even if only in
terms of being more clear on the point of differentiation between our
opinions.
At any rate, this is way off-topic.
True, that.